Mucha Man wrote:cyborg_ninja wrote:Hartzell wrote:I am unaware of any reasoning in international law where the subjective determination by one party of a treaty being "unequal" then can be directly equated with "stealing."
Please provide legal references and relevant precedents (in the post-Napoleonic era). I would especially be interested in court decisions where a so-called "unequal treaty" was adjudged to be invalid . . . . . and the details of that decision. I am personally unaware of any such decisions, so please enlighten me.
Here's a list
Well if you lose a war, you're gonna get pound in the ass.
You have entirely misread Hartzell's point. Try again please.
My bad, was pretty tired when I read that post ><
Treaties rarely go to courts anyway, when signed by both parties they're binding legal documents. It was called unequal because it turned China from a Superpower to a semi-colonial status.